George has gonorrhea. He does not want to tell his wife, but does want to protect her from the disease. While undergoing treatment, he asks the family physician to test his wife without her knowing it. When the wife comes in with a bad case of bronchitis, the physician tests her, saying, "I just want to run another test on you to rule out a possibility, a mere possibility, you understand." He finds she has been infected and treats her without her knowing the diagnosis. He merely tells her, "I want you to take these antibiotics as a precaution." In this way, he protects the husband. Is the family physician deceiving the wife by suppressing the information? Is his medical treatment of the wife ethical? Suppose that the disease was AIDS. Does this change the ethics?